Why did God allow Joseph Smith to marry a 14 year old? As well as spiritually marry women who were married already? (Polyandry)
If Joseph Smith practiced Plural Marriage as early as 1831, why wasn't it recorded until 1843? (See Section 132 of the D&C)
Why didn't Joseph Smith record his first vision experience until 1832, when it happened in the 1820s?
Translation doesn't mean translation anymore?
Why not teach about the seer stone openly instead of having members search the archives for it? (An article from 1974 is not considered out in the open)
Why did Joseph Smith simply use verses of Isaiah from the King James Bible when translating the Book of Mormon? (Errors found in the KJV of the Bible appear in the Book of Mormon)
Different first vision accounts? (Apologists claim anyone tells an experience differently over the years. Using marriage as an example. This is not always the case!) In an 1832 account of the first vision, Joseph Smith claims he knew the denominations to be false, that the true church wasn't to be found on the earth for they had all apostatized. So he inquired of the Lord for a forgiveness of his sins. Only the Lord appears in this vision. Then in the 1838 record of events, Joseph saw the father and the son, and he asked which church to belong to. Really that difference of an experience between the two accounts?
"Mormon" was used for how many years only to be announced that it's a "major victory for Satan." Why did God allow prophets and apostles to use the term without correcting the problem sooner? (I'm a Mormon campaign comes to mind)
Why did the Lord take so long to tell Joseph Smith the name of His church? (Church of Christ, Church of the Latter-day Saints etc.)
The church hasn't been fully restored, even though prophets and apostles have stated otherwise over the years?
If prophet's teachings can be tossed aside by recent prophets, were they teaching falsehoods? Yet we still believe in and listen to teachings from prophets in the Bible and Book of Mormon.
Christ doesn't excuse himself or what he has taught. (D&C 1:38) Yet Nephi kills Laben (1 Ne 4). Murder is a sin.
Teachings regarding the priesthood and temple ban have been disavowed yet they were declared as revelations. (1st Presidency Messages 1949 and 1969)
If the endowment was restored from ancient times stemming all the way back to Adam, why have there been so many changes over the years? (Penalties, Oath of Vengeance, Adam-God Doctrine Lecture taught at the veil)
God used a rock that had been used for gold digging to translate the holy writ of the Book of Mormon?
Changes to the revelations in the D&C from the Book of Commandments. Does the word of the Lord change then?
Children aren't punished for their parents sins, or Adam's sins only their own. Yet if their parents are gay, they cannot enjoy the blessings of the gospel. (Nov 2015 Policy)
If the Nov 2015 policy was revelation, why was it tried to be put quietly in Handbook 1 instead of presented to the church after the order of Common Consent?
When Joseph Smith died, there was no instruction on how to determine the next prophet of the church.
The Book of Abraham was given by revelation and not bay way of translation? Why did Joseph Smith try to translate the Egyptian alphabet?
If Joseph Smith looked at a rock to "translate" the Book of Mormon, why were the plates necessary?
Prophets taught those of black or darker skin were cursed later to be disavowed, yet the scriptures clearly state that fact. (The Book is racist and God seems to be okay with that? 2 Nephi 5:21)
Are the Book of Mormon and Doctrine and Covenants the only scripture which state there are two churches, the church of God and the church of the Devil? Why does the Bible not teach this?